Archive for the ‘Scriptural Question’ Category

Acts 20:7-11 records Paul’s visit to Troas. In this short section Luke writes of breaking bread twice, in verses 7 and 11. We would like to explore several questions here:

Are these two bread-breakings a reference to the same thing (namely, the Lord’s Supper or a common meal), or two different events (one the Lord’s Supper and the other a common meal)? Whatever your response please explain how you reached your conclusion.

Did the second bread-breaking occur on the first day of the week or the second day of the week? Again, please explain your conclusion.

What lessons, if any, can we learn from this text about the Lord’s Supper and/or the use of “break bread” in Scripture?

(Thanks to Jason S for suggesting this discussion)

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Does Paul teach in 1 Cor. 11:3-16 that women must wear a head covering when they are “praying in worship” or not? Please prove by sound exegesis.

Submitted by Brian.

Wholly Blameless

Posted: December 10, 2008 by cthoward in Scriptural Question
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Paul writes in 1Thessalonians 5:23 (ESV):
“Now may the God of peace himself sanctify you completely, and may your whole spirit and soul and body be kept blameless at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.”

What does he mean by “completely sanctified”? Can one be partly sanctified? How does God keep our “whole spirit and soul and body…blameless”? How can our spirit and soul become guilty (rather than blameless)? What is the difference between the soul and the spirit?

In Matthew 28:19 Jesus says to make disciples and then to baptize those disciples…
So my question is: what must a disciple be “made” to know & practice before he is ready to become a baptized believer? (question from Brian King)

John’s Baptism

Posted: October 7, 2008 by cthoward in Scriptural Question
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Mark 1:4 says that John was preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins.  In Acts 2:38, Peter tells the crowd that they must repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins.  The same language is used of John’s baptism that is used of the Pentecost baptism.

My question is:
Why were the Ephesian believers of Acts 19 re-baptized after receiving John’s baptism?  If John preached a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins, which is the same as the baptism preached on Pentecost, why did they need to be baptized again?

I was reading in Isaiah 66.22-24 and ran across a brief discussion about the new heavens and new earth. This is not a new theme in Isaiah (see Isa 65.17) nor is it foreign to the rest of Scripture (2 Peter 3.13; Revelation 21.1, cf. Hebrews 12.22 and the heavenly Jerusalem). However, in Isaiah 66 we also have, in verse 24, the mention of the worm that does not die and the fire is not quenched. In Mark 9, Jesus grabs this from Isaiah and applies it to hell (Mark 9.48, and in the KJV and NKJV v.44, 46). So I am wondering, all you scholars and bible students out there, is the reference in Isaiah a reference to hell also? And if it is, does that mean that the new heavens and the new earth are a reference to heaven? Be sure to cite sources and Scriputures used.